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The relation between the Riemann Hypothesis and lucky numbers

Hello, everyone! For 10 months I was finding a relation between the Riemann Hypothesis and lucky numbers, and finally I have found (I hope without mistakes of my too long proof) an equivalence of RH using the lucky numbers. It says that:

Let be L(n) the nth-lucky number, then RH is true if and only if:

Attachment 13781

And now I don't know how to demonstrate this relation without using the RH. Can you say something about?

If you want to talk about my proof, I prefer that you contact me separately with my mail address. Thank you.