Hi, I have this question, Show that for any integer n, I have written this: because of Eulers theorem. So So And QED Is this right? Please help. Thanks, Katy
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Originally Posted by harkapobi Hi, I have this question, Show that for any integer n, I have written this: because of Eulers theorem. So So And QED Is this right? Please help. Thanks, Katy It was going fine but then I didn't understand what you did at the end: so you have that ....so now just multiply by n both sides in the last congruence and we're done! Tonio
Ahhh yes! Thank you Can't believe I didn't see that.
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