Hi,
Can anyone help with this one:
Establish the following facts:
√p is irrational for any prime p.
Euclid's proof.
--------------
Assume,
a positive integer.
By definition it is equivalent to say,
.
Now the prime decomposition ofhas an even amount of prime factors because of the square. While
does not. By uniquness this is impossible.
Pythagorus' Proof.
-------------------
Assume thatwhere
is a reduced fraction, meaning no common factors.
Then,
.
Note, the right hand side is divisible bybecause the left hand side. Meaning
divides
. But then
itself is divisible by
by properties of prime numbers. That is
.
Subsitute,
But then the left hand side is divisble by, that is
divides
. But then
divides
. Hence
and
have common factors, contrary to assumption.
(This is also a similar approach to Fermat's principle of infinite descent.)
Eisenstein Proof.
-----------------
The polynomialfits the conditions of Eisenstein irreducibility criterion for
. Thus, there are no solution in
and hence none in
.
Rational Roots Proof.
----------------
The polynomialcan only have zeros for
. None of which work. Thus, it is irrational.