Hi,
Can anyone help with this one:
Establish the following facts:
√p is irrational for any prime p.
Euclid's proof.
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Assume,
a positive integer.
By definition it is equivalent to say,
.
Now the prime decomposition of has an even amount of prime factors because of the square. While does not. By uniquness this is impossible.
Pythagorus' Proof.
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Assume that where is a reduced fraction, meaning no common factors.
Then,
.
Note, the right hand side is divisible by because the left hand side. Meaning divides . But then itself is divisible by by properties of prime numbers. That is .
Subsitute,
But then the left hand side is divisble by , that is divides . But then divides . Hence and have common factors, contrary to assumption.
(This is also a similar approach to Fermat's principle of infinite descent.)
Eisenstein Proof.
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The polynomial fits the conditions of Eisenstein irreducibility criterion for . Thus, there are no solution in and hence none in .
Rational Roots Proof.
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The polynomial can only have zeros for . None of which work. Thus, it is irrational.