Is that still true in the context of q^2 = (p^2)/3?
So could I say that p is divisible by 3 and also that q is divisible by 3?
I'm asking this because the weird phrasing of P^2 / 3 so p is divisible by 3 came up in my notes and when i looked it up on the internet it also came up here:
http://mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/52619.html
An exact quote of that link is
which is very different to what you've said in this thread. I already told you that[snip]
p and q are integers
[snip]
3 q^2 = p^2
So p^2 is divisible by 3. That means that p must be as well, so p^2 is
divisible by nine.
.if p^2 is divisible by 3 then p is divisible by 3.
The proof given in the link is very clear. I don't know exactly what your question or problem is.