Re: Apparent lottery anomaly

I'm not sure what you mean by "the idea of equality for all numbers". **Initially** all numbers are equally likely to be chosen. But, obviously, after some have been chosen, those numbers cannot be drawn again. When you start, **if** there are the same number of blue balls as of other colors, then all colors are equally likely. However, after drawing some, while the individual balls that are left are "equally likely" to be chosen, if there are now fewer blue balls, a blue ball is now less likely to be chosen.

Re: Apparent lottery anomaly

Breaking it down a little further, with 5 blue balls removed let us suppose that the number 10, coloured blue, is still in play. Because it is part of the set of all remaining numbers it stands equal chance of being drawn as any other number. However, because it is also part of the set of blue balls, and there are now a reduced number of blue balls compared to the other colours, it appears to stand less chance of being drawn. The number 10 blue ball seems to be in two states of probability at the same time?