Sure it is, but since you're asking I'm assuming that you mean over the reals and probably without using radicals. In that case, no.
Suppose it can be factorised then we would have:Originally Posted by x-disturbed-x
for some and . But when , or
the RHS of the last equation is zero.
Therefore and are the roots of the quadratic
on the LHS.
The quadratic formula will give the roots of ,
which will then allow you to factorise this quadratic.