I guess maybe a couple of things are wrong with it, but for one, the proof manipulates things so that and then attempts to apply Gel'fond-Schneider, contrary to hypothesis.
“Prove” that 1 is transcendental.
The Gelfond–Schneider theorem states that if and are algebraic numbers such that and then is a transcendental number.
Hence, taking and we have that is transcendental.
Hence 1 is transcendental.
Explain what is wrong with the above “proof”.
Which is sort of embarrassing to me, because I am supposed to be a specialist in transcendental number theory....