which is true only for .
But is something like
If I'm not wrong the indetermination arises because while .
By intuition tends to as tends to positive infinite. However I'm not sure at all, and I guess it could tend to a constant. This is a tough problem!
Or is it 1 because the slope of for is ...?
Edit : Now my question is... can we prove it with Peano's axioms? Or we have to suppose another set of axioms?
I'm sad I don't have enough time to dedicate myself fully to the problem.