If 2 workmen ( Jack and Jill ) split profit in a week on a 60/40 basis (in favour of Jill) So long as they work the same amount of time..
What would the split be if Jack worked 2.5 days in a week and Jill only worked 2?
If 2 workmen ( Jack and Jill ) split profit in a week on a 60/40 basis (in favour of Jill) So long as they work the same amount of time..
What would the split be if Jack worked 2.5 days in a week and Jill only worked 2?
I think thats what needs to be worked out.
So if the usual split had been 50/50 then the profit would be divided by 4.5 then times by 2.5 to find jacks wages and the rest being 2(profit/4.5) would be jills
but if the profit is not usually split equally ( in this case 60/40 ) what would the formula look like for the 2.5 and 2 day week?
Hi, I know this question is old, but I thought I'd try to answer it. This is my first post to the forum.
I'm assuming that the reason for the profit split is that, for each hour they work, Jill produces 50% more profit than Jack (eg Jill 6, Jack 4). So the 60/40 split is equitable for their work. (If this assumption is wrong then so is my answer below!). I'll call Jack's profitability rate P, so Jill's is 3P/2
So, given the 2.5 hours to Jack and the 2 hours to Jill, the profit produced would be 2.5xP and Jill's would be 3xP. The fractional split would then be 3P/5.5P to Jill and 2.5P/5.5P to Jack, or simplified 6/11ths to Jill and 5/11ths to Jack.
In the general case where Jack works K hours and Jill works L hours, the proportional split is 2K/(2K+3L) to Jack and 3L/(2K+3L) to Jill.
Hope this is still useful ghend after all these months.