Challenge Question
Prove that for,
Note: There is a very simple solution (in terms of not requiring the use of theorems, not neccesarily in terms of length )
Moderator approved. CB
It has been discussed on the forum before.
http://www.mathhelpforum.com/math-he...ms-144720.html
Note: LaTeX colour tags don't work now, but they used to, hence the words "red" and "black" in my LaTeX.
Note #2: Since that thread is kind of long, you can find the main part of the proof here
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fermat_...sic_properties
Denote bythe
-th Fermat Number. Observe that (1)
.
What happens? At each stage we take the rightmost termand factor it into:
; continuing this way gives the above factorization of
.
Now we can write (1) in the following form: (2).
Suppose that. Then by (2),
, where
is a positive integer. It follows that any common divisor of
and
must divide
, and therefore is equal to
or
. Fermat Numbers are odd, so the only common divisor they have is
.
Incidentally, the result of this problem is one of the proofs that there are infinitely many prime numbers....
Let's assume, then there's a prime
that divides both
and
.
Thusand
but without loss of generality -by symmetry- we may assume that
and then
which implies
thus
which is abusrd since both numbers are odd.
Remark: In fact one may observe thatimplies that the order of 2 module p is
so applying this to both m and n yields
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