I don't know that much about number theory but those who do might have seen this problem. See if you can solve it:
Supposehas this property that
is a perfect square for all
Prove that
for some
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I have been thinking about this problem on and off for a while, without getting very far. Even the very simplest case, when the polynomial is quadratic, seems less than obvious.
So suppose thatis a square for all integers x. (Notice in passing that p(x) can take quite a lot of square values without being the square of a linear polynomial. For example,
is a square when x = –2, –1, 0, 1, 2 and 3.)
Let. Clearly a>0, otherwise the quadratic would become negative for large x. We can factorise this equation over the reals as
If x is very large then so is y, so the first of the factors on the left side of (*) will be very large, and the second factor will be very small. Thuswill be close to the integer y. If a is not a perfect square then the values of the fractional part of
will be densely distributed over the unit interval as
, so they cannot all be close to the fractional part of
and hence
cannot always be close to an integer. That is a contradiction, and it shows that a must be a square,
say.
Now if we multiply (*) by 4a, we can write it as
Ifthen it only has finitely many factors, so (**) has only finitely many integer solutions. Since that is not the case, we must have
.
Going back to the polynomial, we know that
is a square, say
. Then
, so
. Finally,
, so p(x) is the square of an integer polynomial, as required.
That doesn't look like a hopeful approach for generalising to the case of higher degree polynomials. Perhaps it's time for NonCommAlg to shed a bit of light on this??![]()

as far as i know, there are 3 or 4 proofs of this problem. here's a sketch of the "easiest" one:
suppose the claim is not true and letbe a counter-example. then:
1) we may assume thatand that
has no repeated roots. so if
is the discriminant of
then
2) for any (positive) integerthere exist a prime number
and an integer
such that
and
(why?)
3) forlet
and
be as mentioned in 2). since
is a perfect square, we have
thus
4)and
implies that
(why?) therefore
by 3), and so
is not a perfect square. Q.E.D.