1) If a function is analytic, might its imaginary and real parts be called absolutely harmonic?
2) If real and imaginary parts of a function is not harmonic, then it can't be analytic?
1) If a function is analytic, might its imaginary and real parts be called absolutely harmonic?
2) If real and imaginary parts of a function is not harmonic, then it can't be analytic?
Are these statements true or false? thanks
I've never heard the term absolutely harmonic. If f(x+iy) = u(x,y)+i v(x,y) is analytic, then u and v must each be harmonic and also be harmonic conjugates.
2) is true and can quickly be seen via the C-R equations.