Is it possible that on an isosceles triangle if you put squares on the sides, that two of those squares will equal the third?
ie: If the side lengths were 3,3,5 the squares would be 3x3 , 3x3, and 5x5
Please help.
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Is it possible that on an isosceles triangle if you put squares on the sides, that two of those squares will equal the third?
ie: If the side lengths were 3,3,5 the squares would be 3x3 , 3x3, and 5x5
Please help.
Yes, but you cannot get rational (fraction or whole numbers) length of sides.Quote:
Originally Posted by Kitty_Kat
The general form isfor example,
Quote:
Originally Posted by ThePerfectHacker
Do you think it's possible to explain it further? Maybe with pictures because it would help alot. I need to explain it with a picture and prove that this theory is right so any details would help.
I do not know what your math level is but I am going to keep its as simple as possible. You said that when you form squares and the sides and add them you get the square of the third side, thus, in algebraic terms,Quote:
Originally Posted by Kitty_Kat
- but this is the Pythagorean Theorem. Thus, we must have a right triangle. Now you said that it is isoseles. Thus, two sides are equal. Thus, two of the angles must also be equal. Since one angle is already 90 degrees the other two angles must add up to 90 degrees also because the sum of the angles of ANY triangle is 180. Thus, the other two angles must be 45 and 45. Finally, there is a theorem about a 45-45-90 triangle that says if the smaller sides are
then the biggest side (hypotenuse) is
Quote:
Originally Posted by ThePerfectHacker
Well I'm a grade 8 student. I think it's impossible for an isosceles triangle to be part of the pythegorean theorem because if two sides are always the same , as well as angles then wouldn't two of the sides always be equal leaveing the third side on it's own? So I think it's impossible but I need to prove it. The pythegorean Theorem may not work for isosceles triangles.
The pythagorean theorem works for any right triangle.Quote:
Originally Posted by Kitty_Kat
Quote:
Originally Posted by ThePerfectHacker
Not to be a pest but that means it would work for isosceles triangles as well?
But how can that be? :confused:
Any right isosceles triangle is in the form ofand thus the Pythagorean Thereom holds true. But if it isn't a right triangle then this theorem does not apply.
Could you give me a definition of the Pythagorean Theorem to help me with the explanation I'm currently writting?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Jameson
Thank you, this helps me alot.