I have an interesting problem and hope you can shed some light on it
I wonder whether you have encountered any simpler proof which comes with a geometrical interpretation of the below theorem .(or proof without words)
loga to the base b times logb to the base a equals 1
Thanks for algebraic approach to the problem and I can understand how to prove it algebraically but what
the question is looking for is a geometrical proof for it. This is similar to asking for 'Proof Without Words 'type of answer.