In need of help. I've searched the internet and can't seem to find a pythag proof that makes since to me.

Looking at the diagram below and using the following theorem, how do you prove the pythagorean theorem.

Theorem:

*The power of a point is well defined; that is, the same value is obtained regardless of which line l is used in the definition as long as the line has at least one point of intersection with the circle.*
I'd even settle for just proving the pythagorean theorem without using the above theorem.

Prove: (AD)(DC) = (AE)(EB) + (BF)(FC)