Did you mean: ?
If so, then you should note that:
for any two sets . Once this is clear, this should be easy to solve!
Thanks a lot Plato...u know i am new in this room and yet don't know how to use the signs like u did. Will be on the road soon
By the way, so if someone ask me to prove :
\left( {A \times C} \right) \cup \left( {B \times D} \right) = \left( {A \cap B} \right) \times \left( {C \cap D} \right)
Do i have to take some arbitrary sets like that A={1,2}, C={2,3}...and solve it or by using set notation also we can prove or disprove?
Regards