I hope this is the right subforum: the question stems from this other thread:
Induction of linear independent vectors
Use induction over to prove that for any field elements :
Ok, so there's nothing special about the formula.
ii) but then... ?
I mean... what am I showing here, exactly, ?
Does this work?
I'm a bit confused about the inductive step in this kind of problem. It seems kind of obvious and I guess it's really just an example of the distributive law?