Is there any such that

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- May 4th 2009, 07:00 AM #1
## does f(x) = x^2 map Z onto Z?

I do this:

f(x) = x^2

y = x^2

x = y^2

root(x) = y Since for some y in Z there is not an x in Z, this function does not map Z onto Z.

Am I thinking about this right? I am guessing no because isn't there some theorem that states that the set of natural numbers and the set of its squares are bijective? Doesn't this say that maps N to N? No real difference between N and Z. I need some clarification here. Thanks.

- May 4th 2009, 08:31 AM #2

- May 4th 2009, 01:55 PM #3

- May 4th 2009, 03:05 PM #4