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Math Help - Propositional logic question

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    Propositional logic question

    Hi, I wonder if anyone can help me: If V_1 is the valuation which assigns F to every propositional variable, and V_2 is the valuation which assigns T to every propositional variable, show that every formula \phi such that \overline {V_1 } \left( \phi  \right) = \overline {V_2 } \left( \phi  \right) = F is logically equivalent to one of the form

    \neg \bigwedge\limits_{i = 1}^n {(C_i  \to D_i } )<br />

    where each C_i is a conjunction of propositional variables and each D_i is a disjunction of propositional variables.

    Thanks!
    Last edited by DrunkHamster; April 4th 2009 at 04:07 PM.
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