I've been trying to prove this for quite some time today, I just can't seem to get my head around this one! O NO! C(k, r+1) = C(k, k-r-1)
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$\displaystyle C(k, r+1) = \frac{k!}{(r+1)!(k - (r+1))!} = \frac{k!}{(r+1)!(k- r - 1)!}$ $\displaystyle C(k, k-r-1) = \frac{k!}{(k-r-1)!(k - \left(k-r-1\right))!} = \cdots$ Can you show that the two are equal?
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