What do you think is the correct answer and WHY?
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The following logical statement I need help proving (with a formal proof), WITHOUT using DeMorgan's. For some reason, I am unable to do so, and any help would be greatly appreciated!
~(P.Q) = (~P.~Q)
~(PvQ) = (~P.~Q)
(= is the tribar and . is the dot)
(the sooner the better! thanks for any help at all!)