I can't figure out the formula, and without it I can't get much of a proof... Any help, please!
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Originally Posted by qtpipi I can't figure out the formula, and without it I can't get much of a proof... Any help, please! Hi, notice $\displaystyle 1-\frac{1}{i^2} = \frac{(i-1)(i+1)}{i^2}$, distribute the product and use the factorial notation.
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