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Thread: is this one to one?

  1. February 16th 2009, 05:55 PM #1
    srw899
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    is this one to one?

    If f and f composite g are one to one, does it follow that g is one to one?
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  2. February 17th 2009, 02:54 AM #2
    Plato
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    Suppose that g(a) = g(b) does it follow that f \circ g(a) = f \circ g(b)? WHY?
    Now what?
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