Let A be a nonempty set and let f: A-->B be a function. Prove that f is one-to-one iff there exists a function g: B-->A such that gof = 1(subA).

Can someone please show me how this is solved.

Results 1 to 4 of 4

- Feb 1st 2009, 04:13 PM #1

- Joined
- Oct 2008
- Posts
- 44

- Feb 1st 2009, 04:29 PM #2

- Feb 1st 2009, 04:45 PM #3

- Joined
- Oct 2008
- Posts
- 44

- Feb 1st 2009, 05:09 PM #4