Let x, y, z, be real numbers and let n be an integer. Negate this statement:
For all of x, For all of y [(x > 0 and y > 0) --> there exists n(nx > y)]
Use the properties of logical equivalence to show that:
~((~p and Q) or (~p and ~q)) or (p and q) logically equivalent p
maybe its because i have been up all night but these are killing me.