Thread: My last 2 what should be easy problems are crushing my soul

Let x, y, z, be real numbers and let n be an integer. Negate this statement:

For all of x, For all of y [(x > 0 and y > 0) --> there exists n(nx > y)]


AND...


Use the properties of logical equivalence to show that:
~((~p and Q) or (~p and ~q)) or (p and q) logically equivalent p




maybe its because i have been up all night but these are killing me.

Originally Posted by thecleric

Let x, y, z, be real numbers and let n be an integer. Negate this statement:

For all of x, For all of y [(x > 0 and y > 0) --> there exists n(nx > y)]

Try to read this negation:

Your formula is



which can be written

ok i didn't know how to do the symbols but here it is:



where is the symbol for implies

i have to find and simplify the negation of this statement

Did you see my reply above?