The question is as follows,
Assumeis onto. Define a relation of
given by
iff
.
1) Show that every equivalence class with respect tois of the form
for some element
.
So, the equivalence classes ofare given by
which I possibly could write as
where,. But, how can this inverse exist in the first place; he defined the map to be onto, and not one-to-one! Am I thinking about this the wrong way?
2) Show that the there is a one-to-one correspondence betweenand the set of equivalence classes of
My argument goes a little like this; we have our set, and denote our set
by
. Then, we have that each of these elements are unique. If this is the case, then each equivalence on the set
corresponds to a unique element on the set
. This satisfies injectivity.
I'm not sure if this is even a correct argument, or if I'm on the right tracks, and how would this all be formalised?
3) Prove that for every equivalence relationon
, one can find a
and an onto map
such that
I have not got a clue what on earth this is even asking! Any help on this would be much appreciated.
Thank you all in advance,
HTale.


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