I was studying Cantor's contributions to set theory, and I came upon two results:
#1: It can be shown that the power set of the naturalshas a higher cardinality than the naturals
by attempting to enumerate all the subsets of
and being able to create a new subset previously not listed, thus contradicting the fact that there was originally a bjiection between
and
.
#2: It can also been shown that the realsare "more numerous" than the naturals
by using Cantor's Diagonalization argument.
Thus, it is known that bothand
have a higher cardinality than the naturals
.
But how can we show thatand
have the same cardinality as each other, though? I tried constructing a bijection (because I know that one must exist); I tried to use Cantor's style; nothing really worked.
I am so stuck on this proof that I do not even know where to start. Someone give me a hint or a starting point, please?


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