I did it like this:Suppose that f:AB and g:B
C are mappings. Show that:
1. f and g are both injectiveg
f is injective
Let,
and
.
If f and g are injectivex,y
A, f(x)=f(y)
x=y.
Therefore: f(a)=b and g(b)=c where a is unique to b and b is unique to c (one to one function by the injective property).
Let x=a:
Since a is unique to be and b is unique to c thenis also a one to one function. Hence
is injective.
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My issue here is the part where I mention that f(a)=b and g(b)=c. Is this a valid claim?


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