Hi,

I have this question:

if f and fog are 1 to 1 functions, does it follow that g is 1-1 function?

I tried for example ,

if g(3)=4 and g(7)=4,

then f( g(3) )= f( G(7) )=f(4) will produce the 1-1 function property.( it does not work)

I have tried other things but still , it doesn't work can someone help me?

B