it's obviously true for n = 1. suppose the claim is true for n, i.e. now we have:
Thank you my friend. but saying the truth, I always had problems understanding the inductive method. now when it comes to Fibonacci, I feel like Im more in trouble. I am going to have my mid-term exam within 3 days
Can you please explain for me, the induction and also inductive proves for Fibonacci ? Thank U a lot