oops, n^n came out as nn...anywhere there is nn, it should read (n)^n.
How do i use induction(effectively) to prove that n! < nn for n ≥ 2 ?
let p(n): n! < nn for n ≥ 2.
we see that p(2) holds true.
now i prove it holds for p(n+1) right?
(n+1)! = (n+1)n!<(n+1)nn by the induction hypothesis.
i think this is right.. can someone show me how to finish this correctly?
thanks
Kyle