Hey guys, after spending a few hours on this question and not getting anywhere, I think I need some help.
denotes the intersection of the sets and and denotes the union of the sets and . ( is the set of Natural Numbers)
and prove that
We have been learning about the Archimedean property, so I've been trying to mess around with that. I mean the second one is fairly obvious. 1 will be included in the set for any n. And therefore it is the only number than is always in the set of natural numbers and the set [1, 1+ 1/n]...but I don't know how to write this formally.
Regarding the second one, again, I can see that 1/(n+2) tends to 0 as n tends to infinity. Perhaps I need to prove this via the archimedean property? But I don't think that'd be enough. 4/3 is the highest that 1+ 1/n+2 (n=1) could possibly be if n belongs to the set of natural numbers...but I'm just stating the obvious here.