Hey, just stuck on this question: Show that in we have I have no idea. Please help! is used to represent the set of integers.
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Originally Posted by Joel24 Hey, just stuck on this question: Show that in we have I have no idea. Please help! is used to represent the set of integers. Well there exists only one multiplicative inverse to any element of . So let's find out if the identity works: It looks like the original assumption is true. -Dan
Yes, that makes sense. Thanks a lot Dan.
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