Does the sentence $\displaystyle \forall x (P(x) \rightarrow Q(x)) $ mean "for all x $\displaystyle (P(x) \rightarrow Q(x))$ is true?

If so, and we are asked to prove that the sentence is not a tautology, does it mean that all we need to do is come up with some interpretation of what x and P(x) are that would make $\displaystyle P(x)$ true and hence $\displaystyle ((P(x) \rightarrow Q(x))$ false?