hi, proof for $\displaystyle m<n $ and $\displaystyle m, n \in \mathrm{N} $ $\displaystyle (1 + \frac{1}{m})^m $ $\displaystyle < $ $\displaystyle (1 + \frac{1}{n})^n $ Can anyone please help with this question?
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You can find a couple of proofs on PlanetMath.
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