Prove the following:
If and , then .
Here's my thoughts/attempt:
Proof:
Let A, B, C, and D be sets. Assume and . Let . Since f is a function from A to B, there is some such that . Let be such an element, that is, let such that . Let . Since g is a function from C to D, there is some such that . Let be such an element, that is, let such that .
This is all I have so far.
Would I have to break it into cases where and ? If , contains an element, but if , is empty since a and c were arbitrary. The same argument holds for . So, taking these things into account, is either a function from the set containing a to the set containing b, or its a function from the empty set to the empty set.
Does this make any sense, is it necessary, and how should I write it in my proof?
Thanks in advance.