i am trying to understand the axiom of choice.

def from book: suppose that is a collection of nonempty sets. Then there exist a function. such that for each .

isnt this trivially obvious becouse ex.

if then

and if then and

have i understod this correct?.

now what i dont understand is that certain mathematician refuses to use this theorem, they think that this theorem cant be trusted.

why?

also about latex, when i tried to see what the code would look like when i posted it, stuff like f(< fontsize = \{1.... appeard.

so i thought something was off with the size, so i marked the text and clicked on 2. that removed the problem.

maby this is a bug, in this sites latex interpreter.

also when i clicked size, the [size] parameters did not appear.