Thread: Proof using binomial theorem

Hi

Please take a look at the following problem:



Could someone help me out with a hint on how to prove this? I have worked out that this equation would equal 1, when x=1 and y=-2, but I could use some help on how to prove it.

Thanks in advance

Originally Posted by zzizi

If is even then

You made it too easy

Thank you for your help Plato!

Yeah, Plato has a way of doing that!