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Math Help - i really need this answer asap

  1. #1
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    i really need this answer asap

    Find the inverse of the following
    a) f: {0,1,2,3,4) mapped to {0,1,2,3,4} defined by
    f(0)=0, f(1)=3, f(2)=1, f(3)=4, f(4)=2

    b) R is mapped to (0, infinite) defined by g(x) = ln(e^x + 1) for all x is in R
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  2. #2
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    Re: i really need this answer asap

    Hey Akini.

    For this problem, we know that an inverse map satisfies f(f^(-1)(x)) = x. So as an example you know f(0) = 0 which means f^(-1)(f(0)) = f^(-1)(0) = 0. Can you use this hint to get the rest of the inverse map?
    Thanks from Akini
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  3. #3
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    Re: i really need this answer asap

    idk if i replied already or not (because im new to this.lol) but thanx .. and i wish i can get 1 more example from the question just to make sure i get the hang of it .. thanx
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  4. #4
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    Re: i really need this answer asap

    Another example is f(x) = x^2 for x >= 0. y = x^2. To get an inverse function, you switch x's and y's and solve for the new y.

    So we get x = y^2 => y = +SQRT(x) so f^(-1)(x) = SQRT(x) and we double check that f^(-1)(f(x)) = SQRT(x^2) = x which is >= 0 as expected.
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