Re: Proof: Inverse Functions

Quote:

Originally Posted by

**lovesmath** Let X and Y be sets and f:X->Y be a function. For A is a proper subset of X and B is a proper subset of Y, recall the definitions of f(A) is a proper subset of Y and f^-1(B) is a proper subset of X,

f(A)={f(a):a is an element of A} and f^-1(B)={x is an element of X:f(x) is an element of B

Prove:

A is a proper subset of f^-1(f(A)) and f(f^-1(B)) is a proper subset of B; equality need not hold in either case.

Not even sure where to begin. Help, please!

This is not true.

Let

**but**

Please review the statement for errors.