If p is prime, can (p-1)! ever be a multiple of p? After running several scenarios, I don't think that it can be, but I don't see a way to prove this. Can anyone offer a hint? I'm stuck!
Follow Math Help Forum on Facebook and Google+
Use Euclid's lemma.
wilsons theorem may also help.
Thanks for your help!
Last edited by joatmon; February 29th 2012 at 01:57 PM.
View Tag Cloud