If p is prime, can (p-1)! ever be a multiple of p? After running several scenarios, I don't think that it can be, but I don't see a way to prove this. Can anyone offer a hint? I'm stuck! Thanks.
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Use Euclid's lemma.
wilsons theorem may also help.
Thanks for your help!
Last edited by joatmon; February 29th 2012 at 02:57 PM.
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