Hey again ! I know it is pretty simple but i dont seem to prove it. If a=bmodk and c=dmodk then why a-c=(b-d)modk
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Originally Posted by grainofsand Hey again ! I know it is pretty simple but i dont seem to prove it. If a=bmodk and c=dmodk then why a-c=(b-d)modk
thank you so much !
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