I was studying for my final when I stumbled across this question, I am completely stuck and would appreciate any and all help for how you'd go about proving this or finding a counterexample if its false.
Let C be the set of all real functions that are continuous on the closed interval [0,1]. Define the function: A:C-> as follows: For each f in C, A(f) = the integral from 1 down to 0 f(x)dx.
Is the function A an injection? Is it a surjection? Justify your conclusions.
If it is true, or if it is an injection or surjection the justifications should be proofs.