Thread: Proof By Induction #2

I'm using sigma notation and this is what it breaks down to:

p(k) is k^3= (k^2(k+1)^2)/4

Originally Posted by Edbaseball17

I'm using sigma notation and this is what it breaks down to:

p(k) is k^3= (k^2(k+1)^2)/4

What would i do to get p(k+1)

Originally Posted by Edbaseball17

I'm using sigma notation and this is what it breaks down to:

p(k) is k^3= (k^2(k+1)^2)/4

Are you asking how to show that
?

The base case is n = 1:

and

so this checks out.

Now we assume the theorem is true for some n = k. That is:


So we want to show this for n = k + 1.


You need to show that this is the same thing as:


-Dan

kinda, but the right side is all over 4, not just the 1

Originally Posted by Edbaseball17

kinda, but the right side is all over 4, not just the 1

sorry, just have to learn how to make all the fancy characters, lol.