Hey all,

I'm doing some homework and one of the exercises got me confused. In particular, it states the following formula:

$\displaystyle $\forall x( A(x) \to \exists y ( B(y) \land \exists y C(x, y) ) )$

I am confused about the double usage of $\displaystyle $ \exists y $$. Is it allowed to do that twice for the same variable (y) within the same scope? It doesn't make sense to me.

Thanks in advance!