.
I'm studying for an introductory course on logic, I'm at the point where I've to show the equality of certain formulas using a calculation with some basic standard equivalences. Like Inversion, True/False elimination, DeMorgan, distributivity et cetera. I'ce come across a formula that's intuitively very clear, I just don't understand how to work it from A to B.
I'm asked to provide a calculation showing that: . Intuitively I can see this to be true, drawing the truthtables confirms this, but how can I show this via a simple calculation?
I know I can rewrite this as follows: by distribution I get: , from which by idempotence follows that: . Which actually leads me to exercise b . To show that is equivalent to P.
The big question is: how do I eliminate the Q? What rule can I apply here to show the equivalence to P?