Hi

I have a conceptual question about the logical equivalence. Suppose we are asked

to prove

$\displaystyle p\equiv q $

Is it same as proving

$\displaystyle p\Leftrightarrow q $ ?

The reason I am asking this is that I have read at few places on this forum

that they are equivalent. following post is an example.

but the wikipedia article on logical equivalence says that logical equivalence is

different from material equivalence. How so ? I couldn't understand the reasoning

given there.

thanks