How to prove ((p→q)∧p) → q is a tautology using equivalence laws?
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As per this thread, could you please list what equivalences you're allowed to use? What are your inference rules?
Hello, MathsNewbie0811! Prove . is a tautology using equivalence laws.
Should line 8 be
Just making sure I understand. From line 7 you apply the fact that
Why did the p change?
Originally Posted by terrorsquid Should line 8 be Line 8 is correct, but line 7 should be (~q \/ q) \/ ~p.
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