My attempt:

For n=1, we have , which is trivially true.

Let the statement be true for some n.

We need to prove that

We know that

How do I show that ?

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- August 11th 2011, 08:09 AMalexmahoneUse induction to prove the AM-GM inequality
__My attempt:__

For n=1, we have , which is trivially true.

Let the statement be true for some n.

We need to prove that

We know that

How do I show that ? - August 11th 2011, 04:04 PMSironRe: Use induction to prove the AM-GM inequality
You can find a proof using induction over here:

Inequality of arithmetic and geometric means - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia