Hi
I am trying to prove the following by mathematical induction.
first step is to test this for n=2, which I did. If we call above statement P(n) , then
P(2) is true. So we assume that let the statement be true for some
with
and the statement is also true for
. So we have
and such statements from i=2 to i=m. We have to prove that the statement is true for P(m+1). i.e.
So consider
Now we can use equation 1 here
I tried to manipulate the second term here. We see that for m > 2 , we have
so using this above, we have
I don't know where to go from here....... can anybody suggest something ?
thanks