Hi

I am trying to prove the following by mathematical induction.

first step is to test this for n=2, which I did. If we call above statement P(n) , then

P(2) is true. So we assume that let the statement be true for some

with

and the statement is also true for

. So we have

and such statements from i=2 to i=m. We have to prove that the statement is true for P(m+1). i.e.

So consider

Now we can use equation 1 here

I tried to manipulate the second term here. We see that for m > 2 , we have

so using this above, we have

I don't know where to go from here....... can anybody suggest something ?

thanks